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Code d'Examen: 250-315
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1)
Questions et réponses: 167 Q&As

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NO.1 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from connecting to
the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be prevented from
working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-315   250-315 examen   certification 250-315   250-315

NO.2 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

Symantec examen   250-315   250-315

NO.3 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-315   250-315   250-315 examen

NO.4 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

Symantec   250-315 examen   250-315   certification 250-315

NO.6 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

Symantec   250-315 examen   250-315   250-315   250-315

NO.7 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

certification Symantec   250-315   250-315

NO.8 According to Symantec, what is a botnet.?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

Symantec   certification 250-315   250-315   certification 250-315

NO.9 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason for
this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

Symantec   250-315   250-315 examen   certification 250-315   250-315   250-315

NO.10 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint Protection
12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and Intrusion Prevention
technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all communications from an attacking
host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-315   250-315

NO.11 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms like
W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-315   certification 250-315   250-315

NO.12 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

certification Symantec   250-315   certification 250-315   250-315

NO.13 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the performance
of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-315   250-315   250-315   250-315 examen   250-315 examen

NO.14 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-315   250-315

NO.15 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to bypass
traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology blocks
such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

Symantec   250-315   certification 250-315

NO.16 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-315   certification 250-315   certification 250-315

NO.17 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection layers
against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-315   250-315 examen   250-315   250-315 examen

NO.18 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most granular
level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: C,D

Symantec   250-315 examen   250-315

NO.19 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

certification Symantec   250-315   250-315   250-315 examen

NO.20 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: 250-315
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1)
Questions et réponses: 167 Q&As

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NO.1 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from connecting to
the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be prevented from
working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

Symantec examen   certification 250-315   250-315   250-315

NO.2 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

certification Symantec   certification 250-315   certification 250-315   certification 250-315

NO.3 According to Symantec, what is a botnet.?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

certification Symantec   250-315   250-315 examen   certification 250-315

NO.4 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

certification Symantec   certification 250-315   certification 250-315   250-315 examen   certification 250-315

NO.5 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

certification Symantec   certification 250-315   250-315 examen   certification 250-315

NO.6 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the performance
of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

Symantec   certification 250-315   250-315 examen   certification 250-315   250-315 examen

NO.7 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

certification Symantec   certification 250-315   250-315   250-315 examen

NO.8 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most granular
level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: C,D

certification Symantec   250-315   250-315 examen   250-315

NO.9 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-315   250-315 examen

NO.10 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

certification Symantec   250-315   certification 250-315   certification 250-315   certification 250-315

NO.11 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms like
W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

Symantec examen   250-315   250-315   certification 250-315   250-315

NO.12 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-315 examen   250-315 examen

NO.13 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection layers
against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

certification Symantec   250-315 examen   250-315 examen   250-315 examen

NO.14 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to bypass
traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology blocks
such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

certification Symantec   certification 250-315   250-315   certification 250-315   250-315

NO.15 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

certification Symantec   250-315 examen   250-315   certification 250-315   250-315   certification 250-315

NO.16 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: B,D

Symantec   250-315   250-315   250-315

NO.17 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

Symantec   250-315   250-315 examen   250-315 examen

NO.18 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

Symantec   250-315   250-315

NO.19 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason for
this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

Symantec   certification 250-315   250-315   250-315 examen   250-315 examen

NO.20 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint Protection
12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and Intrusion Prevention
technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all communications from an attacking
host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-085

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Security Information Manager 4.7 Technical Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 200 Q&As

Code d'Examen: ST0-153

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment)

Questions et réponses: 67 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-315

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1)

Questions et réponses: 167 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-310

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 10.0 for Exchange)

Questions et réponses: 318 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 250-403

Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.1)

Questions et réponses: 174 Q&As

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NO.1 How do the encrypt and sign buttons interact with policy?
A.They bypass it
B.They do not bypass it, they use the Standalone chain
C.They only work when the server is online and the Outbound policy rule has been enabled
D.None of the above are true
Answer:D

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8.How do you create an ADK?
A.It is automatically created and added to the server upon installation
B.You purchase one from PGP Corporation
C.From the Organization Keys tab
D.From PGP Desktop
Answer:D

Symantec   ST0-153 examen   ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153
9.How does a cluster know if a server needs to be updated?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:A

Symantec   ST0-153 examen   certification ST0-153
10.How does the “Prefer Notes native encoding over PGP encoding” feature work?
A.External emails are PGP encrypted but internal ones are Notes encrypted
B.Internal emails are PGP encrypted but external ones are Notes encrypted
C.All emails are Notes encrypted
D.The user is prompted to choose their encryption type
Answer:A

certification Symantec   ST0-153   ST0-153
11.How does Web Messenger replication work?
A.There is no replication
B.Messages can be replicated to all servers or a number of servers or not replicated
C.Messages are stored on all servers or not replicated
D.Messages can only be replicated to a number of servers or not replicated
E.Messages are always replicated on all servers unless it is a DMZ server
Answer: B

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12.How is the private key of the ADK protected?
A.The private key should be split into several shares and given to designated users.
B.The ADK keypair is stored on the server
C.The private key is protected by the Ignition Key
D.The ADK doesn't have a private key
Answer:A

Symantec examen   certification ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153
13.How many backups are kept by default?
A.7
B.30
C.5
D.5, not configurable
Answer:C

certification Symantec   certification ST0-153   ST0-153   ST0-153
14.If a user belongs to 3 different groups, which one will give this user policy?
A.The first one created on the server if there is no order specified
B.The Excluded group if he belongs to it
C.Wherever LDAP puts them first
D.The Everyone group
Answer:B

certification Symantec   certification ST0-153   ST0-153 examen   ST0-153
15.If Alice has forgotten the passphrase for her encrypted boot volume, what can her administrator do?
A.Use the WDE-ADMIN group access to authenticate at BootGuard and change the passphrase
B.Check the box for "Automatically decrypt boot disk upon power on" in Consumer Policy
C.Use the Account lockout mechanism to reset her passphrase
D.Use the Whole Disk Recovery Token
E.Reset her passphrase in PGP Universal Server
Answer: D

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16.A user has never dealt with another employee but is able to send them secure email because they
have a PGP Universal Server.This is possible because of:
A.This is an example of the SMIME Web of Trust
B.Manual verification
C.This is not possible with PGP products
D.A trust relationship
Answer:D

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18.If you did not specify network settings during the installation process, which of the following IP
addresses would initially be assigned to your PGP Universal Server?
A.172.16.10.100/24
B.192.168.1.100/24
C.10.1.1.100/24
D.none of the above
Answer:B

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19.If you had to manually type in your PGP Universal Server address to administer it, what would it be?
A.http://Key.domain:443
B.https://Key.domain:9000
C.https://Keys.domain
D.https://Keys.domain:9000
Answer:D

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20.If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A.The file is decrypted
B.The file remains encrypted
C.The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D.If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E.It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.2 How do PGP Universal Server clusters resolve conflicts where a user account is being changed on two
or more servers at the same time?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:D

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NO.3 How did you add Internal Users to the PGP Universal Server?
A.Receiving email
B.Installing the server
C.Sending email
D.All of the above
Answer:C

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NO.4 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do?A user who is not a
PGP Desktop user accesses a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:D

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NO.5 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do? A user who is not
a PGP NetShare user but is a PGP Desktop user attempts to access a PGP NetShare encrypted folder...
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:B

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NO.6 How could I verify user keys for a partner using SMIME?
A.By placing the partner's CA in the list of Trusted Keys
B.By adding an Organization Certificate to my PGP Universal Server
C.By splitting my ADK
D.PGP Universal Server automatically trusts all non-PGP SMIME servers
Answer:A

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Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1)

Questions et réponses: 167 Q&As

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NO.1 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection layers
against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.3 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint Protection
12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and Intrusion Prevention
technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all communications from an attacking
host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

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NO.6 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.8 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason for
this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most granular
level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: C,D

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NO.10 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.11 According to Symantec, what is a botnet.?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

Symantec   250-315   250-315 examen

NO.12 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.13 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.14 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.15 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: B,D

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NO.16 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the performance
of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms like
W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.18 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from connecting to
the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be prevented from
working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.19 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to bypass
traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology blocks
such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

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