CompTIA 220-701, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 220-701
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Essentials (2009))
Questions et réponses: 388 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following functions can be performed by using the msconfig command?
A. Update the product key information for the Microsoft OS.
B. Prevent specific programs from beginning at the system startup.
C. Find specific information about the system hardware configuration.
D. Configure the boot order of the system hardware devices.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following types of software protection will help mitigate any threats coming from worm and
Trojans?
A. Spam Blocker
B. Antivirus
C. Anti Spyware
D. Anti Adware
Answer: B

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NO.3 A technician is installing a program on a Windows Vista computer and the installation fails. Which of
the following is NEXT step?
A. Reinstall Windows XP on the computer.
B. Contact the program ¯ s m anu f ac t u r e r.
C. Run the installer as an administrator.
D. Upgrade to Windows 7
Answer: C

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NO.4 A laptop with an external USB hard drive and an external monitor is not booting from the internal
hardware drive. Power has been verified and the battery is fully charged. But the laptop appears to be
stopping after POST. Which of the following will help troubleshoot the cause of problem?
A. Format the external USB hare drive.
B. Turn off the external monitor
C. Disconnect the external monitor
D. Remove and reset the laptop battery
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following printer types requires the use of toner?
A. Impact
B. Inkjet
C. Laser
D. Thermal
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the MOST effective means for a technician to prevent ESD damage when
installing RAM?
A. Touching grounded metal before contacting components
B. Ensuring the AC plug has a ground post
C. Wearing a grounded wristband
D. Wearing rubber-soled shoes
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following ports does an impact printer use?
A. Wi
Fi
B. PS/2
C. USB
D. LPT
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is LAST step of troubleshooting theory?
A. Establish a plan of action to restore the problem and implement the solution.
B. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.
C. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
D. Question the user and identify user charges.
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-701 examen   220-701

NO.9 Which of the following is the MAXIMUM number of devices connected per IEEE 1394 controller?
A. 4
B. 63
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following protocols is used to retrieve email?
A. SFTP
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. POP3
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following describes keeping the desk area free of trip hazards such as loose cables?
A. Network interface
B. Client Configuration
C. Cable management
D. Personal Area Network (PAN)
Answer: C

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NO.12 A user made a change to their windows XP system that caused problems. The technician wants to
restore the system on previous state. The technician cannot find the previous restore point. Which of the
following is problem?
A. The technician is not in administrator mode.
B. System restore is turned off.
C. System 32 folder has been removed.
D. System restore is not supported on the OS version.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following Network cables would a technician find on RJ-45 connector?
A. UTP
B. Coaxial
C. USB
D. Fiber
Answer: A

CompTIA   220-701   220-701 examen

NO.14 Which of the following will BEST conserve resources and prolong equipment life?
A. Firmware updates
B. Power Management
C. Disk Defragmenter
D. Clean with a lint-free cloth
Answer: B

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NO.15 A technician has completed upgrading a computer from Windows Vista to Windows 7. According to the
system and video drivers need to be upgraded. Which of the following is BEST source for theses drivers?
A. The Microsoft Windows 7 website
B. The manufacturer ¯ s w ebs it e
C. The windows Hardware Compatibility List
D. The drivers that came in the original Windows Vista Installation CD
Answer: C

CompTIA   220-701   220-701 examen   220-701

NO.16 Which of the following would a technician use to install a manufacturer ¯ s i m age on a no t ebook? ( Se l ec t
two)
A. Recovery CD
B. System Restore Utility
C. Access a recent data backup
D. Utilize a Recovery Agent feature
E. Factory recover partition
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 Which of the following processor types is manufactured by AMD?
A. Celeron
B. Athlon
C. Pentium
D. Core 2 Quad
Answer: B

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NO.18 An end user is having problems printing from an application. The technician attempts to send a test
page to printer. Which of the following BEST explains the reason the technician used a test page to
trouble shoot the issue.?
A. It clears the print queue and resets the printer memory.
B. It allows the technician to see the quality of the printer output.
C. The output of the test page allows the technician to initiate diagnostic routines on the printer.
D. It verifies connectivity and eliminates possible application problems.
Answer: D

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NO.19 A computer in a warehouse experiences hardware faults and often requires replacement of power
supplies, CPUs and CD ROM drives. Which of the following tools will help prevent the hardware faults?
A. Anti-static wrist straps
B. Compressed air
C. Anti-static wipes
D. Operating system rescue disk
Answer: B

CompTIA   220-701   220-701   220-701

NO.20 On Windows 7, which of the following paths allows a user to configure a fingerprint reader?
A. Start > Settings > Device Manager > Biometric Devices
B. Start > Computer > Devices > Biometric Devices
C. Start > Settings > Control Panel > Biometric Devices
D. Start > Programs > System Settings > Biometric Devices
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: EK0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (E-Biz+)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 .What are three protocols that are part of the TCP/IP suite? (Choose three)
A. File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
B. NetBEUI Protocol.
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).
D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP).
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.2 What differentiates client/server applications from other types of
applications?
A. A telnet session to a web server.
B. Processing is divided between the requested and providing applications.
C. Reliance on relational database technology and dumb terminals.
D. Using a workstation to view remote data on a mainframe computer.
Answer: B

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NO.3 .An example of a click and mortar alliance would be a partnership between a(n)
A. Established traditional retailer and a Web community.
B. Web community and a trade association.
C. E-Marketplace and an Application Service Provider.
D. On-line storefront and an Internet Service Provider.
Answer: A

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NO.4 .A collaborative Internet based network to link an enterprise with a specific group of its supplies
or customers is commonly referred to as a(n):
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. CONet
D. Intranet
Answer: B

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NO.5 .Jenny has decided to make her online purchase of DVD movies from a particular retailer
because their site is easy to use and she can order quickly.
What decision criteria is she using?
A. Personal Service
B. Convenience
C. Value Proposition
D. Online Service
Answer: B

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NO.6 .A Web site offers daily news content for free, but has banners at the top of each page.
What business model is being used?
A. Store A does not have a physical location and sells a variety of products online.
B. Store B does not have a physical location and sells a specific type of product.
C. Store C has a physical location and a Web site. A variety of products are sold.
D. Store D has a physical location. A variety of products are sold.
Answer: A

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NO.7 .What does the term "banner blindness" refer to?
A. The growing trend of adding interactivity to banner advertisement to increase their visibility.
B. The anonymous tracking of banner impressions and browsing behaviors across multiple sites.
C. The refusal of companies to acknowledge banner advertising as a valuable advertising
medium.
D. The growing trend of visitors completely ignoring banner advertisements.
Answer: D

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NO.8 .What are three ways to increase consumer awareness of a Web site? (Choose three)
A. Have links on other Web sites.
B. Submit information about your Web site to search engines.
C. Advertise on traditional media.
D. Utilize a value-added network.
Answer: A, B, C

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NO.9 .In E-Business, which of the following is the most common element in determining the
pricing strategy for the business?
A. Business financial status
B. Overall business model
C. Product availability
D. Product delivery
Answer: B

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NO.10 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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NO.11 .Incremental planning based on short term milestones, which is often used in E-Business, is
called:
A. True return on investment.
B. Trigger-point planning.
C. Trig's event planning.
D. Solid contingency planning.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which one of the following best describes spamming?
A. Authorized sending of e-mail to business and people who have agreed to receive your
message.
B. Unauthorized receiving of e-mails by businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
C. Mail that comes through the post office rather than electronic format.
D. Unauthorized sending of e-mails to businesses and people who have not agreed to receive
your messages.
Answer: D

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NO.13 .A new advantage to consumer at click-and-mortar stores is:
A. The ability to use multiple credit cards.
B. Overnight delivery.
C. The ability to return online purchases to brick-and-mortar stored.
D. Longer warrantee periods.
Answer: C

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NO.14 .VPNsare most susceptible to what type of attacks?
A. Trojan
B. Sniffing
C. Man in the middle
D. Virus
E. DoS
Answer: C

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NO.15 The Business Service Provider (BSP) is:
A. Internet service developers that rents only its own proprietary applications via the Web.
B. A company that offers packaged software for lease online.
C. A service provider that packages a selection of applications for distribution online.
D. A specialized company that connects customers with PCs and browsers to the Internet.
Answer: B

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NO.16 .You E-Business site suffers from hacker attacks. You want to seek information on the
latest Internet security issues.
Which of the following organizations might provide you with the information?
A. Netscape
B. IANA
C. CERT
D. IEEE
Answer: C

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NO.17 .Which of the following provides a single point of access to network resources in your
E-Business infrastructure for your business partners?
A. Tree
B. Browser
C. Domain
D. Directory service
Answer: D

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NO.18 .What are the three basic components of E-Business trigger-point planning? (Choose three)
A. Business case
B. Application structure
C. Prioritization blueprint
D. Application implementation
Answer: A, C, D

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NO.19 Which of the following is required for enabling SSL on the web server?
A. Shopping Cart Software
B. Digital Certificate
C. Internet Merchant Bank Account
D. Warehouse
E. Web hosting
Answer: B

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NO.20 .Which of the following is not a lesson learned from e-tailing?
A. Maintaining marginal profits on each sale.
B. Make sure your website performs well.
C. Establish branding whenever possible.
D. Focus on market share.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: LX0-101
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] Exam 1)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 In the vi editor, which of the following commands will delete the current line at the cursor and the 16
lines following it (17 lines total)?
A. 17d
B. 17dd
C. 17x
D. d17d
E. 16d
Answer: B

CompTIA   LX0-101   LX0-101

NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of
program apache2?
Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-
SIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-USR1APACHE2

NO.3 In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Answer: A

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NO.4 An administrator wishes to kill a process with a PID of 123. Which of the following commands will allow
the process to "clean up" before exiting?
A. kill -1 123
B. kill -9 123
C. kill -15 123
D. kill -17 123
Answer: C

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NO.5 An administrator is looking for an executable file foo. Which of the following commands would search
for foo within directories set in the shell variable, PATH?
A. locate
B. which
C. find
D. query
E. whereis
Answer: B

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
The system configuration file named _______ is commonly used to set the default runlevel. (Please
provide the fill name with full path information).
Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

NO.7 Which of the following is the difference between the --remove and the --purge action with the dpkg
command.?
A. --remove removes the program, --purge also removes the config files.
B. --remove only removes the program, --purge only removes the config files.
C. --remove removes a package, --purge also removes all packages dependent on it.
D. --remove removes only the package file itself, --purge removes all files related to the package.
Answer: A

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NO.8 To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs
to tell the dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program's shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is the process ID number of the init program?
A. -1
B. 0
C. 1
D. It is different with each reboot.
E. It is set to the current run level.
Answer: C

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NO.10 The lspci command can display information about devices EXCEPT:
A. card bus speed (e.g. 66Mhz).
B. card IRQ settings.
C. card vendor identification.
D. card AGP rate (e.g. 1x, 2x, 4x).
E. card Ethernet MAC address.
Answer: E

CompTIA   LX0-101 examen   LX0-101   LX0-101

NO.11 Pressing the Ctrl-C combination on the keyboard while a command is executing in the foreground sends
which of following signal codes?
A. 1 (SIGHUP)
B. 2 (SIGINT)
C. 3 (SIGQUIT)
D. 9 (SIGKILL)
E. 15 (SIGTERM)
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator is planning a partition scheme for a new Linux installation. Which of the following
directories should the administrator consider for separate partitions? (Select THREE).
A. /etc
B. /home
C. /var
D. /lib
E. /tmp
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.13 All of the following commands will update the Modify timestamp on the file /tmp/myfile.txt EXCEPT:
A. file /tmp/myfile.txt
B. echo "Hello" >/tmp/myfile.txt
C. sed -ie "s/1/2/" /tmp/myfile.txt
D. echo -n "Hello" >/tmp/myfile.txt
E. touch /tmp/myfile.txt
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following command lines would an administrator use to restrict the GNU find command to
searching a particular number of subdirectories?
A. --max-dirs
B. -dirmax
C. -maxdepth
D. -s
E. -n
Answer: C

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NO.15 An administrator has just added a CD-ROM drive (/dev/hdd) to a system and added it to the
administrator's fstab. Typically the administrator can use which of the following commands to mount
media in that drive to /mnt/cdrom?
A. mount /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
B. mount /dev/cdrom
C. mount -t cdrom /dev/cdrom /mnt/cdrom
D. mount /mnt/cdrom
E. automount /mnt/hdd /mnt/cdrom}
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: JK0-017
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Project+ Certification Exam)
Questions et réponses: 402 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following tools would be used to determine the relationship between two changed
variables?
A. Scatter diagram
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Ishikawa diagram
D. Monte Carlo analysis
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A. Be open minded to new ideas to the project.
B. Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project.
C. Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan.
D. Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A project manager has been informed that a project deliverable must be completed by September 1st.
Which of the following BEST describes this situation?
A. Project assumption
B. Project constraint
C. Project risk
D. Acceptance criteria
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   JK0-017   JK0-017

NO.4 A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings. Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO).
A. Include agenda items in the meeting invitation.
B. Ensure that the meetings start and end on time.
C. Provide criticism to poor team performers.
D. Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting.
E. Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved.
Answer: AE

CompTIA examen   JK0-017   JK0-017

NO.5 In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A. Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements.
B. Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope
for the project.
C. Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results.
D. Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A. A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved.
B. A summary level timetable of the major project milestones.
C. A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project.
D. A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project.
Answer: A

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NO.7 The project cost performance index is 1.2 and the project manager has spent $71,248 dollars to date.
The project is currently 50 percent complete. Which of the following is the earned value (EV)?
A. $35,624.00
B. $59,373.33
C. $71,243.00
D. $35,497.60
Answer: A

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NO.8 A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion. Which of the following would the project
manager use to document the details of the project closure?
A. Histogram
B. Postmortem
C. SWOT analysis
D. Project scope statement
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A. 56
B. 66
C. 72
D. 132
Answer: C

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NO.10 Two employees will not work on the same project together. The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together. This is an example of
which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A. Withdrawing
B. Forcing
C. Accepting
D. Compromising
Answer: B

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NO.11 A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope. Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A. Construct a detailed plan to implement the change.
B. Analyze the Impact of the change request.
C. Document the request in the change control log.
D. Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project documents?
A. Decision oversight
B. Regulatory compliance
C. Internal process compliance
D. Change management controls
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AB

CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen   JK0-017 examen

NO.14 A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase. Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A. Quality log
B. Risk register
C. Issues log
D. Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select TWO).
A. Project schedule
B. Competing resource demands
C. Project budget
D. Varying work styles
E. Time zone difference
Answer: BD

CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017

NO.16 One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well. The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project. Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A. Ask other members to help.
B. Assign the team member to another project.
C. Talk to the team member to encourage better performance.
D. Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D

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NO.17 In which of the following situations would a risk be placed in the upper right quadrant of a risk matrix?
A. The team identified a risk to have a medium probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
B. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a high impact on project
success.
C. The team identified a risk to have a low probability of occurrence and a high impact on project success.
D. The team identified a risk to have a high probability of occurrence and a medium impact on project
success.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A. $90,000
B. $140,000
C. $150,000
D. $160,000
Answer: C

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NO.19 Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component. The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today. The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate
their modifications by the close of business today. Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A. Negotiating
B. Forcing
C. Smoothing
D. Compromise
Answer: B

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NO.20 The EV of a particular project is $6 million. The CV is -$340,000. Which of the following can be
determined from this information?
A. The project costs are currently under-budget.
B. The AC is less than the EV.
C. The EV Is higher than the AC.
D. The project costs are currently over-budget.
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-017 examen   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen   JK0-017

NO.21 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification JK0-017   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen

NO.22 Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?
A. Determine the BAC of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference.
B. Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total
time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second.
C. Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel. Then calculate the total time taken.
D. Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float.
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   JK0-017   JK0-017 examen   JK0-017 examen

NO.23 The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A. parametric estimating.
B. bottom-up estimating.
C. expert judgment.
D. analogous estimating.
Answer: B

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NO.24 A project has been cancelled during the execution phase. Which of the following steps should be
taken?
A. Continue to work the project.
B. Finish the project charter and project plan.
C. Complete lessons learned document.
D. Develop the project transition plan.
Answer: C

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NO.25 In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people. The resources are located in Europe. Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A. Communication plan
B. Risk management plan
C. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D. Project scope statement
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized location?
A. Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make corrections.
B. Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions.
C. Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information.
D. Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which of the following describes a work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary?
A. A high level requirements document used to create the WBS.
B. An alphabetical listing of WBS components detailing their associated project schedule dependencies
C. An organizational reference defining how WBS levels must be decomposed.
D. A supporting document that provides more detail for the WBS components.
Answer: D

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NO.28 Given the following information:
Pessimistic estimate is 30 days
Most Likely estimate is 15 days
Optimistic estimate Is 10 days
Which of the following is the expected duration for this scheduled activity?
A. 11 days
B. 17 days
C. 25 days
D. 29 days
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   JK0-017   JK0-017   certification JK0-017

NO.29 There are three teams assigned to the same project. Two of the project teams are ahead of schedule;
however, the product does not meet the needed quality standards. The third project team is behind
schedule, but their product meets the quality standards. Which of the following should be the NEXT step
for the project manager?
A. Inform the stakeholders that the project is behind schedule.
B. Meet with the teams to clarify the schedule and the quality standards expected.
C. Crash the schedule to meet the project timeline.
D. Fast track the schedule to complete the project on time without impacting the quality of the product.
Answer: D

CompTIA   JK0-017   JK0-017

NO.30 Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other. Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A. Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members.
B. Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project.
C. Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict.
D. Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: CA1-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP) Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 208 Q&As

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NO.1 The Security Development Lifecycle (SDL) consists of various security practices that are grouped under
seven phases.Which of the following security practices are included in the Requirements phase.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Incident Response Plan
B. Create Quality Gates/Bug Bars
C. Attack Surface Analysis/Reduction
D. Security and Privacy Risk Assessment
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which technology can be used to help ensure the efficient transport of VoIP traffic?
A. DNS
B. QoS
C. H.323
D. RSTP
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following are the functions of a network security administrator? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Backing up the files
B. Writing computer software
C. Maintaining and implementing a firewall
D. Developing, maintaining, and implementing IT security
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.4 Which of the following security practices are included in the Implementation phase of the Security
Development Lifecycle (SDL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Establish Design Requirements
B. Perform Static Analysis
C. Use Approved Tools
D. Execute Incident Response Plan
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.5 Which of the following is the most secure authentication scheme and uses a public key cryptography
and digital certificate to authenticate a user?
A. Form-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Certificate-based authentication
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following terms is about communicating the user's need and ability to communicate, and
the medium through which that communication may occur?
A. Data sharing
B. Presence
C. Instant messaging
D. Audio conferencing
Answer: B

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NO.7 In which of the following attacks does an attacker intercept call-signaling SIP message traffic and
masquerade as the calling party to the called party and vice-versa?
A. Call tampering
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Eavesdropping
D. Denial of Service
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following is an XML-based framework developed by OASIS and used to exchange user,
resource and service provisioning information between cooperating organizations?
A. SOAP
B. SAML
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following is a declarative access control policy language implemented in XML and a
processing model, describing how to interpret the policies?
A. SAML
B. SOAP
C. SPML
D. XACML
Answer: D

CompTIA   CA1-001   certification CA1-001   CA1-001

NO.10 Which of the following is frequently used by administrators to verify security policies of their networks
and by attackers to identify running services on a host with the view to compromise it?
A. Fuzzer
B. Port scanner
C. MegaPing
D. UDP scan
Answer: B

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NO.11 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You want to allow some users to access a
particular program on the computers in the network. What will you do to accomplish this task?
A. Apply remote access policies
B. Apply NTFS permissions
C. Apply group policies
D. Apply account policies
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following protocols is used extensively in communication and entertainment systems that
involve streaming media, such as telephony, video teleconference applications and web-based push to
talk features?
A. SIP
B. MGCP
C. H.323
D. RTP
Answer: D

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. You need to conduct network reconnaissance,
which is carried out by a remote attacker attempting to gain information or access to a network on which it
is not authorized/allowed.
What will you do?
A. Use a SuperScan
B. Use a netcat utility
C. Use a vulnerability scanner
D. Use an idle scan
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following components of a VoIP network is frequently used to bridge video conferencing
connections?
A. MCU
B. Videoconference station
C. IP Phone
D. Call agent
Answer: A

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NO.15 In which of the following activities an organization identifies and prioritizes technical, organizational,
procedural, administrative, and physical security weaknesses?
A. Social engineering
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. White box testing
D. Penetration testing
Answer: B

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NO.16 You need to ensure that a session key derived from a set of long-term public and private keys will not be
compromised if one of the private keys is compromised in the future?
A. Perfect forward secrecy
B. Secure socket layer
C. Secure shell
D. Security token
Answer: A

CompTIA   CA1-001   CA1-001   CA1-001

NO.17 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc.
You want the clients and servers in your organization to be able to communicate in a way that prevents
eavesdropping and tampering of data on the Internet. Which of the following will you use to accomplish
the task?
A. EFS
B. WEP
C. SSL
D. MS-CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.18 Collaboration platform offers a set of software components and services that enable users to
communicate, share information, and work together for achieving common business goals. What are the
core elements of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose three.
A. Product and service integration
B. Real-time communication
C. Change management
D. Team collaboration
E. Messaging
Answer: B,D,E

CompTIA   CA1-001   CA1-001   CA1-001

NO.19 SDLC phases include a minimum set of security tasks that are required to effectively incorporate
security in the system development process. Which of the following are the key security activities for the
development/acquisition phase?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Prepare initial documents for system certification and accreditation
B. Conduct the risk assessment and use the results to supplement the baseline security controls
C. Determination of privacy requirements
D. Initial delineation of business requirements in terms of confidentiality, integrity, and availability
Answer: A,B

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NO.20 Which of the following stages are involved in the successful implementation of a collaboration platform?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Ongoing collaboration solution design
B. Federated identity management
C. Platform implementation
D. Product and service integration
Answer: A,C

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Code d'Examen: CLO-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam)
Questions et réponses: 182 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a reason for business users lo be interested in cloud computing?
A. Desire for vendor lock-in reduction
B. Desire for improved security
C. Desire for improved user experience
D. Desire for reducing compliance issues
Answer: C

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NO.2 Web hosting is a service that enables customers to deploy a website quickly. This is an example of:
A. IaaS.
B. SaaS
C. PaaS.
D. On-demand software.
E. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following IT processes is likely to become more important due to the adoption of cloud
computing?
A. Capacity management
B. Troubleshooting management
C. Project management
D. Request fulfillment management
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is important to standardize?
A. Information standards and applications
B. User names and hardware providers
C. Virtual machine images and applications
D. Virtual machine images and identity information standards
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following actions should a company take if a cloud computing provider ceases to uphold
their contract?
A. Consult the company's exit plan.
B. Move the company data to the backup provider that was selected earlier.
C. Re-host all critical applications on the company's internal servers.
D. Evaluate the company's strategic options for an alternative provider
Answer: A

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NO.6 Why is it important to consider the cloud ecosystem when developing applications.?
A. Cloud providers will do application development.
B. The development process needs to change.
C. The role of the IT department will change.
D. This can speed up the development process.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Digital identities for logging onto SaaS solutions should be issued by all the following EXCEPT:
A. A third-party identity provider.
B. The customer organization.
C. The SaaS provider.
D. A user.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following does IT outsourcing and cloud computing typically have in common?
A. Pay as you go agreements
B. Short-term financial commitment
C. Tailor-made applications based on client needs
D. Vendor lock-in potential
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following is a typical concern for business and IT leaders when adopting cloud
computing?
A. Current cost structure of IT
B. Quality of web-based user interfaces
C. Security of current IT solutions
D. Technical maintenance of current IT assets
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is the MOST important service management consequence of elastic capacity?
A. The need for better application development
B. The need for better security management
C. The need for good performance monitoring and management
D. The need to improve the fulfillment and provisioning process
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following technologies are related to Web services?
A. HTML, IDM, JSON
B. HTML, IDM, XML
C. HTML, JSON, XML
D. DM, JSON, XML
Answer: C

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NO.12 How can an organization successfully implement a SaaS strategy?
A. Manage the risks associated with bringing in external providers
B. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
C. Open up internal databases with Web service access for easier access
D. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines to increase security
Answer: A

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NO.13 Cloud computing _____________capital cost to variable cost.
A. increases
B. reduces
C. shifts
D. equates
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following consequences does IT outsourcing and cloud computing have in common?
A. Involvement of external staff
B. Improved flexibility
C. Reduced expense
D. Shorter time to market
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following is an important new skill for an IT organization to develop in the context of cloud
computing?
A. Provisioning services
B. Incident management
C. Technology upgrade monitoring
D. Security and risk management
Answer: A

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NO.16 Privacy is the right of________ to selectively disclose information about _________ and restrict the
further use of that information by any party.
A. companies, others
B. companies, themselves
C. individuals, others
D. individuals, themselves
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following does the server virtualization layer do?
A. It allows the underling physical server hardware to be shared
B. It allows the virtual machines to be dependent on each other
C. It allows the virtual machines to be load balanced
D. It prohibits the use of virtual machines by unauthorized users
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is the function of orchestration services?
A. Assemble functional requirements for application development
B. Configure application clusters with Web services
C. Enable and disable load balancers
D. Manage the starting and stopping of application server clusters
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following is the primary way to access PaaS?
A. Web services
B. Websites
C. Web hosting providers
D. Data integrations
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following are essential steps to take when creating a virtual server?
A. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select security credentials.
B. Select a machine image to run, select an application set to run, select the size of the virtual machine.
C. Select a machine image to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
D. Select an application set to run, select security credentials, select the size of the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: JK0-802
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA A+ Certification Exam (JK0-802))
Questions et réponses: 274 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer calls and states the new plasma display they just received has yellow spots all over
the screen. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A. Using wrong video connector
B. Dead pixels
C. Dropped in shipping
D. Incorrect installation
Answer: B

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NO.2 A technician would like to dispose of a hard drive that is no longer needed. According to
company
policy, all contents on the disk should be deleted before disposal. Which of the following OS
command line tools should be used?
A. CHKDSK
B. DEL
C. SCANDSK
D. FORMAT
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is creating an image that will be used to deploy Windows 7 to 100 PCs. Which of
the
following tools should be used to accomplish this?
A. SYSPREP
B. Windows 7 Advisor
C. CHKDSK
D. DISKPART
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is a new feature of iOS 5?
A. Ability to dual boot the Android OS
B. Ability to run native PC applications
C. Ability to perform iTunes backups
D. Ability to perform untethered updates
Answer: D

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NO.5 A user is reporting their web browser is not going to the site they are attempting to access.
Which
of the following would BEST resolve this?
A. Delete all Internet cookies.
B. Ensure the user is not utilizing a proxy server.
C. Remove all Internet shortcuts.
D. Clear all Internet cache and saved passwords.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following is an advantage of a virtual machine hosted on a PC?
A. Reduces the training required for employees.
B. Reduces the amount of physical hardware required.
C. Reduces the amount of CPU required on the host PC.
D. Reduces the amount of RAM required on the host PC.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A user wants to prevent access to specific websites to prevent their children from accidently
accessing them. Which of the following can be implemented?
A. A switch
B. Antivirus software
C. Antispyware software
D. A firewall
Answer: D

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NO.8 A user on a domain network cannot install software that they need. Which of the following
user
groups is this user MOST likely associated with?
A. Standard user
B. Guest user
C. Power user
D. Administrator
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following encryption standards is found on older wireless devices and provides
minimal security?
A. WPA
B. WPA2
C. WEP
D. AES
Answer: C

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NO.10 A user gets an error message that the trust relationship to the domain has been broken.
Which of
the following can be done to resolve this from the client desktop?
A. Re-join the computer to the domain
B. Reboot the PC as the domain will automatically rebuild the relationship
C. Update the BIOS using the latest version
D. Run CHKDSK
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HT0-101
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (HTI+ Residential Systems....)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 The wiring scheme for data cables terminated in a home is:
A. 568A
B. 568B
C. RS422
D. RS485
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following TCP/IP protocols is used to manage the assignment of IP
addresses?
A. Domain name service (DNS)
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
D. Simple network management protocol (SNMP)
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following use high-frequency sound?
A. Occupancy sensors
B. Ultrasonic sensors
C. Photosensors
D. Passive Infrared (PIR) sensors
Answer: B

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NO.4 When troubleshooting a lighting problem in an existing home, the home technology
integrator differentiates between low-voltage and high-voltage lighting control by
examining the:
A. Incandescent bulbs
B. Fluorescent bulbs
C. Differences in the wall and ceiling mounts
D. Cable supplying power to the lighting fixture
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following organizations sets standards for heating, ventilation, and air
conditioning in the United States?
A. IEEE
B. NAHB
C. IALD
D. ASHRAE
Answer: B

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NO.6 A xxxx technician is on-site to configure a home security alarm system. The
technician needs to create a configuration that alerts the off-site customer
monitoring center whenever the front and side doors are armed and opened.
Which of the following devices does the technician need to install on the doors to have
them trip the alarm?
A. Rug sensors
B. Motion sensor
C. Magnetic contacts
D. Closed circuit TV
Answer: C

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NO.7 The technician is onsite to install a security camera system and has successfully
configured the camera and video monitor. The customer has a request to attach the
camera to the customer's television.
Which of the following devices would the technician need to install to connect the
security camera to the television?
A. Splitter
B. Coupler
C. BALUN
D. High pass filter
Answer: B

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NO.8 The maximum recommended cable distance between stations for 10Base-T Ethernet on
Category 3 cabling is:
A. 50 meters
B. 100 meters
C. 200 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: B

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NO.9 A client has a 100 watt stereo receiver. The client has purchased speakers rate at
200 watts. The receiver keeps shutting off, and the distortion is high.
Which of the following is the best explanation?
A. The speakers need more power than 100 watts.
B. The strands of wire are touching.
C. The speaker cable is the wrong gauge.
D. The protective fuses in the receiver are too weak.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Covert video cameras can be legally installed:
A. Anywhere the client decides.
B. Anywhere there is a potential for high-crime volume.
C. In places where there is no expectation of privacy.
D. In places where permissions has been given by the owner.
Answer: C

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NO.11 An individual has connected a turntable to a stereo receiver. When a record is
played, the system emits a load hum.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The cartridge needs to be replaced.
B. The speakers are too close together.
C. The turntable is plugged into an auxiliary port.
D. The ground wire on the turntable is disconnected.
Answer: D

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NO.12 A client requests to have two sub-woofers installed to create stereo effect.
Which of the following statements is the best response a technician can make?
A. Two sub-woofers would produce too much bass.
B. Another amp is required to power the second sub-woofer.
C. Two sub-woofers are unnecessary and would cost too much.
D. The sub-woofer's sound is too low to have an effect on stereo imaging.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following ports must be open to allow HTTP traffic through a firewall?
A. 23
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following is a type of coaxial cable used in television and satellite
installations?
A. RG-6
B. RG-58
C. RJ-11
D. RJ-45
Answer: A

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NO.15 How many B channels are included in an integrated services digital network (ISDN)
BRI?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 23
Answer: B

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NO.16 There are two-four pair cables run from the auxiliary disconnect outlet to the
network interface device. The homeowner orders a fifth line.
The color-pair of the fifth line is:
A. orange - white/orange
B. blue - white/blue
C. slate - white/slate
D. green - white/green
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following types of sensors are the most commonly used, both inside and
outside of the home, and detect the presence of humans based on emitted radiation?
A. Passive Infrared (PIR) sensors
B. Ultrasonic sensors
C. Microwave sensors
D. Charged Coupled Device (CCD) sensors
Answer: A

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NO.18 Three communicating thermostats installed in one residence is referred to as a:
A. 3-Damper system
B. 3-Room system
C. 3-Zone system
D. 3-Process system
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following types of network cables can support a maximum segment length
of 2,000 meters?
A. Fiber optic
B. Thin coaxial
C. Unshielded twisted pair
D. Thick coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following wires of a cable are used for transmitting or receiving data on a
10/100Base-T network?
A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
B. 1,2, 3, and 6
C. 1, 2, 8, and 8
D. 5, 6, 7, and 8
Answer: B

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