Guide de formation plus récente de ISEB BH0-010

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Code d'Examen: BH0-010
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus)
Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

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NO.1 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.2 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

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NO.11 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

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NO.14 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.15 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.18 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-BA1

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Business Analysis)

Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BH0-009

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITSM Foundation Certificate in Problem & Incident Management)

Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BH0-010

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus)

Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BH0-008

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Foundation Certificate in Green IT)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BH0-007

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Intermediate Certificate in Software Testing)

Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BH0-006

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITIL V3 Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)

Questions et réponses: 418 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service CatalogueWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.2 Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
A.Service Design: Design the processes
B.Service Strategy: Develop the offerings
C.Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D.Service Operation: IT Operations Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.3 The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service
Lifecycle?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Service Strategy
C.Service Design
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.4 What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.5 Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to
reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A.All of the above
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.6 Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
(CIs)?
1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
A.1 and 2 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.1, 3 and 4 onlyWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A.Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B.They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C.They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D.They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.8 Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Responsibilities
A.1 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.2 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.9 What would you use the seven Rs of Change Management for?
A.To assist with the impact analysis for a Change request
B.To review changes after they have been implemented
C.To allocate the roles and responsibilities during the Change Management process
D.To act as a framework for implementing a ChangeWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.10 Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A.Supplier Management and Service Level Management
B.Supplier Management and Demand Management
C.Demand Management and Service Level Management
D.Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.11 Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
A.Remediation Planning
B.Categorization
C.Prioritization
D.Review and Close WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.12 Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of
all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Catalogue Management
C.Demand Management
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.13 Which of the following do Technology metrics measure?
A.Components
B.Processes
C.The end to end service
D.Customer satisfactionWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.14 Which of the following BEST describes 'Partners' in the phrase "People, Processes, Products and
Partners"?
A.Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B.Customers
C.Internal departments
D.The Facilities Management function WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.15 Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A.Processes and functions
B.Maturity and cost
C.The end to end service
D.Infrastructure availability WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.16 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.17 Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
A.An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database
B.A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
C.An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management
D.Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reportedWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.18 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.19 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Provider Type?
A.Internal service provider
B.External service provider
C.Third-party provider
D.Shared services unit WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.20 In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?' is underpinned
by which set of activities?
A.Baseline assessments
B.Service and process improvements
C.Taking measurements and recording metrics
D.Setting measurement targetsWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.21 Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A.Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B.Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C.Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D.Development, negotiation and agreement of organizational Level Agreements (OLAs)WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.22 A Known Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
has been found. Is this a valid approach?
A.Yes
B.No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
C.No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented
D.No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problemWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.23 What does a service always deliver to customers?
A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.24 The BEST definition of an Incident is:
A.An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.An unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT Service
C.Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.25 "Service Management is a set of specialised organizational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.26 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have
met their targets?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Business Relationship Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Availability ManagementWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.27 Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A.Measurement, methods and metrics
B.Service Design Package
C.Service Portfolio Design
D.Process definitions WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.28 Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.None of the above WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.29 Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle?
A.Act
B.Plan
C.Do
D.Coordinate WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.30 A change process model should include:
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing defined,
including handling issues and unexpected events
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1 and 2 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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Code d'Examen: BH0-010

Nom d'Examen: ISEB (BCS Certified Tester Foundation Level 2011 syllabus)

Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

Le test de Certification ISEB BH0-010 devient de plus en plus chaud dans l'Industrie IT. En fait, ce test demande beaucoup de travaux pour passer. Généralement, les gens doivent travailler très dur pour réussir.

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NO.1 Which of the following is a purpose of the review kick off activity?
A. Explain the objectives
B. Select the personnel group
C. Document results
D. Define entry and exit criteria
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a) Adapt planning based on test results.
b) Create test specifications.
c) Plan tests.
d) Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader; a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader; c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader; b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader; b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which activity of the Fundamental Test Process is the test environment set up.
A. Test implementation and execution.
B. Test planning and control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any lifecycle model?
A. Each test level has the same test objective.
B. There should be more testing activities than development activities.
C. Test design can only begin when development is complete.
D. Testers should begin to review documents as soon as drafts are available.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Pair the correct test design techniques (i to v) with the category of techniques (x, y and z):
i) Exploratory Testing
ii) Equivalence Partitioning
iii)Decision Testing
iv)Use Case Testing
v) Condition coverage
x) Specification-based
y) Structure-based
z) Experienced-based
A. x =i and ii; y = iii and v; z = iv.
B. x =i, ii and iv; y = v; z = iii
C. x = ii and iv; y = iii and v; z = i.
D. x = iii and iv; y = v; z = i and ii.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following are characteristic of test management tools?
a) They support traceability of tests to source documents.
b) They provide an interface to test execution tools.
c) They help to enforce coding standards.
d) They manipulate databases and files to set up test data.
A. a and c
B. b and c
C. a and b
D. b and d
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
A. Determine whether the organisation existing test process needs to change.
B. Conduct a proof of concept.
C. Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time. d) Identify coaching and
mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool
D. a, b and c.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given the following flow chart diagram:
What is the minimum number of test cases required for 100% statement coverage and 100% decision
coverage, respectively?
A. Statement Coverage = 1, Decision Coverage = 3.
B. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 3.
C. Statement Coverage = 2, Decision Coverage = 2.
D. Statement Coverage = 3, Decision Coverage = 3
Answer: C

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NO.9 A system specification states that a particular field should accept alphabetical characters in either upper
or lower case.
Which of the following test cases is from an INVALID equivalence partition?
A. Feeds
B. F33ds
C. FEEDS
D. fEEDs
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which statement about combinations of inputs and preconditions is true for a large system?
A. It is easy to test them all in a short time
B. It is not practically possible to test them all
C. It is not possible to test any of them
D. It is essential to test them all in order to do good testing
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following are structure-based techniques?
a) Decision table testing
b) Boundary value analysis
c) Multiple condition coverage
d) Use case testing
e) Decision testing
A. a and c.
B. b and d.
C. b and e.
D. c and e.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which of the following is an example of a product risk?
A. Software that does not perform its intended functions
B. Failure of a third party
C. Problems in defining the right requirements
D. Skill and staff shortages
Answer: A

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NO.13 Given the following state table:
Which of the following represents an INVALID transition (N)?
A. Off fromisplay Channel 1?
B. Channel 2 from Display Channel 1?
C. Stby from Live?
D. Channel 2 from Live?
Answer: A

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NO.14 Given the following decision table:
Which of the following test cases and expected results is VALID?
A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which one of the following is true of software development models?
A. There are always four test levels in the V-model.
B. In a Rapid Application Development (RAD) project, there are four test levels for each iteration.
C. In Agile development models, the number of test levels for an iteration can vary depending on the
project.
D. There must be at least four test levels for any software development model.
Answer: C

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NO.16 Four testers have each submitted an incident report in which each reported a problem with the User
log-on process. User log-on is a critical component of the system. The table below describes the four
defect reports submitted.
Which Tester has reported the incident MOST effectively, considering the information and priority they
have supplied?
A. Tester 3
B. Tester 1
C. Tester 2
D. Tester 4
Answer: D

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NO.17 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.18 Given the following sample of pseudo code:
01.Input number of male rabbits
02 Input number of female rabbits
03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then
04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No
06 Print deep male and female rabbits apart
07 End if
08 End If.
Which of the following test cases will ensure that statement 6 is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = Yes
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = No
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = Yes
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = No
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a) Stubs may be used.
b) May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c) Tests the interactions between software components.
d) Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.20 The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100%
decision coverage is required on exit from component testing.
The following test cases have been run:
* Test Case 1 covering path A, B, D, G
* Test Case 2 covering path A, B, D, E, F, E, F, E, F, E, G
* Test Case 3 covering path A, C, D, E, F, E, G
Which of the following statements related to coverage is correct?
A. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%.
B. Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.B.Statement coverage is less than
100%; decision coverage is 100%.
C. Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%.C.Statement coverage is 100%;
decision coverage is less than 100%.
D. Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%.D.Statement coverage and
decision coverage are both less than 100%.
Answer: A

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